1. The English word ‘Communication’
is derived from the words
(A) Communis and Communicare
(B) Communist and Commune
(C) Communism and Communalism
(D) Communion and Common sense
Answer: (A)
2. Chinese Cultural Revolution
leader Mao Zedong used a type of communication to talk to the masses is known
as
(A) Mass line communication
(B) Group communication
(C) Participatory communication
(D) Dialogue communication
Answer: (A)
3. Conversing with the spirits
and ancestors is termed as
(A) Transpersonal communication
(B) Intrapersonal communication
(C) Interpersonal communication
(D) Face-to-face communication
Answer: (A)
4. The largest circulated daily
newspaper among the following is
(A) The Times of India
(B) The Indian Express
(C) The Hindu
(D) The Deccan Herald
Answer: (A)
5. The pioneer of the silent
feature film in India was
(A) K.A. Abbas
(B) Satyajit Ray
(C) B.R. Chopra
(D) Dada Sahib Phalke
Answer: (D)
6. Classroom communication of a
teacher rests on the principle of
(A) Infotainment (B) Edutainment
(C) Entertainment (D) Power
equation
Answer: (B)
7. The missing number in the
series :
0, 6, 24, 60, 120, ?, 336, is
(A) 240 (B) 220 (C) 280 (D) 210
Answer: (D)
8. A group of 7 members having a
majority of boys is to be formed out of 6 boys and 4 girls. The number of ways
the group can be formed is
(A) 80 (B) 100 (C) 90 (D) 110
Answer: (B)
9. The number of observations in
a group is 40. The average of the first 10 members is 4.5 and the average of
the remaining 30 members is 3.5. The average of the whole group is
(A) 4 (B) 15/2
(C) 15/4 (D) 6
Answer: (C)
10. If MOHAN is represented by
the code KMFYL, then COUNT will be represented by
(A) AMSLR (B) MSLAR
(C) MASRL (D) SAMLR
Answer: (A)
11. The sum of the ages of two
persons A and B is 50. 5 years ago, the ratio of their ages was 5/3. The
present age of A and B are
(A) 30, 20 (B) 35, 15
(C) 38, 12 (D) 40, 10
Answer: (A)
12. Let a means minus (–), b
means multiplied by (X), C means
divided by (/) and D means
plus (+). The value of 90 D 9 a 29 C 10 b 2 is
(A) 8 (B) 10
(C) 12 (D) 14
Answer: (D)
13. Consider the Assertion–I and
Assertion–II and select the right code given below:
Assertion–I: Even Bank-lockers
are not safe. Thieves can break them and take away your wealth. But thieves
cannot go to heaven. So you should keep your wealth in heaven.
Assertion–II: The difference of
skin-colour of beings is because of the distance from the sun and not because
of some permanent traits. Skin-colour is the result of body’s reaction to the
sun and its rays.
Codes :
(A) Both the assertions-I and II
are forms of argument.
(B) The assertion-I is an
argument but the assertion-II is not.
(C) The assertion-II is an
argument but the assertion-I is not.
(D) Both the assertions are
explanations of facts.
Answer: (B)
14. By which of the following
proposition, the proposition ‘some men are not honest’ is contradicted?
(A) All men are honest.
(B) Some men are honest.
(C) No men are honest.
(D) All of the above.
Answer: (A)
15. A stipulative definition is
(A) always true
(B) always false
(C) sometimes true sometimes
false
(D) neither true nor false
Answer: (D)
16. Choose the appropriate
alternative given in the codes to replace the question mark.
Examiner – Examinee, Pleader –
Client, Preceptor –?
(A) Customer (B) Path-finder
(C) Perceiver (D) Disciple
Answer: (D)
17. If the statement ‘most of the
students are obedient’ is taken to be true, which one of the following pair of
statements can be claimed to be true?
I. All obedient persons are
students.
II. All students are obedient.
III. Some students are obedient.
IV. Some students are not
disobedient.
Codes :
(A) I & II (B) II & III
(C) III & IV (D) II & IV
Answer: (C)
18. Choose the right code:
A deductive argument claims that:
I. The conclusion does not claim
something more than that which is contained in the premises.
II. The conclusion is supported
by the premise/premises conclusively.
III. If the conclusion is false,
then premise/premises may be either true or false.
IV. If premise/combination of
premises is true, then conclusion must be true.
Codes:
(A) I and II (B) I and III
(C) II and III (D) All the above
Answer: (A)
On the basis of the data given in
the following table, give answers to questions from 19 to 24 :
Government Expenditures on Social
Services
(As percent of total expenditure)
Sl.
No.
|
Items
|
2007-08
|
2008-09
|
2009-10
|
2010-11
|
|
Social
Services
|
11.06
|
12.94
|
13.06
|
14.02
|
(a)
|
Education,
sports & youth affairs
|
4.02
|
4.04
|
3.96
|
4.46
|
(b)
|
Health
& family welfare
|
2.05
|
1.91
|
1.90
|
2.03
|
(c)
|
Water
supply, housing, etc.
|
2.02
|
2.31
|
2.20
|
2.27
|
(d)
|
Information
& broadcasting
|
0.22
|
0.22
|
0.20
|
0.22
|
(e)
|
Welfare
to SC/ST & OBC
|
0.36
|
0.35
|
0.41
|
0.63
|
(f)
|
Labour
and employment
|
0.27
|
0.27
|
0.22
|
0.25
|
(g)
|
Social
welfare & nutrition
|
0.82
|
0.72
|
0.79
|
1.06
|
(h)
|
North-eastern
areas
|
0.00
|
1.56
|
1.50
|
1.75
|
(i)
|
Other
social services
|
1.29
|
1.55
|
1.87
|
1.34
|
|
Total
Government expenditure
|
100.00
|
100.00
|
100.00
|
100.00
|
19. How many activities in the
social services are there where the expenditure has been less than
5 percent of the total
expenditures incurred on the social services in 2008-09?
(A) One (B) Three
(C) Five (D) All the above
Answer: (D)
20. In which year, the
expenditures on the social services have increased at the highest rate?
(A) 2007-08 (B) 2008-09
(C) 2009-10 (D) 2010-11
Answer: (B)
21. Which of the following activities
remains almost stagnant in terms of share of expenditures?
(A) North-eastern areas (B)
Welfare to SC/ST & OBC
(C) Information &
broadcasting (D) Social welfare and nutrition
Answer: (C)
22. Which of the following item’s
expenditure share is almost equal to the remaining three items in the given
years?
(A) Information &
broadcasting (B) Welfare to SC/ST and OBC
(C) Labour and employment (D)
Social welfare & nutrition
Answer: (D)
23. Which of the following items
of social services has registered the highest rate of increase in expenditures
during 2007-08 to 2010-11?
(A) Education, sports & youth
affairs (B) Welfare to SC/ST & OBC
(C) Social welfare &
nutrition (D) Overall social services
Answer: (B)
24. Which of the following items
has registered the highest rate of decline in terms of expenditure during
2007-08 to 2009-10?
(A) Labour and employment (B)
Health & family welfare
(C) Social welfare &
nutrition (D) Education, sports & youth affairs
Answer: (A)
25. ALU stands for
(A) American Logic Unit
(B) Alternate Local Unit
(C) Alternating Logic Unit
(D) Arithmetic Logic Unit
Answer: (D)
26. A Personal Computer uses a
number of chips mounted on a circuit board called
(A) Microprocessor
(B) System Board
(C) Daughter Board
(D) Mother Board
Answer: (D)
27. Computer Virus is a
(A) Hardware (B) Bacteria
(C) Software (D) None of these
Answer: (C)
28. Which one of the following is
correct?
(A) (17)10 = (17)16
(B) (17)10 = (17)8
(C) (17)10 = (10111)2
(D) (17)10 = (10001)2
Answer: (D)
29. The file extension of MS-Word
document in Office 2007 is _______.
(A) .pdf (B) .doc
(C) .docx (D) .txt
Answer: (C)
30. _______ is a protocol used by
e-mail clients to download e-mails to your computer.
(A) TCP (B) FTP
(C) SMTP (D) POP
Answer: (D)
31. Which of the following is a
source of methane?
(A) Wetlands
(B) Foam Industry
(C) Thermal Power Plants
(D) Cement Industry
Answer: (A)
32. ‘Minamata disaster’ in Japan
was caused by pollution due to
(A) Lead (B) Mercury
(C) Cadmium (D) Zinc
Answer: (B)
33. Biomagnification means
increase in the
(A) concentration of pollutants
in living organisms
(B) number of species
(C) size of living organisms
(D) biomass
Answer: (A)
34. Nagoya Protocol is related to
(A) Climate change
(B) Ozone depletion
(C) Hazardous waste
(D) Biodiversity
Answer: (D)
35. The second most important
source after fossil fuels contributing to India’s energy needs is
(A) Solar energy
(B) Nuclear energy
(C) Hydropower
(D) Wind energy
Answer: (C)
36. In case of earthquakes, an
increase of magnitude 1 on Richter Scale implies
(A) a ten-fold increase in the
amplitude of seismic waves.
(B) a ten-fold increase in the
energy of the seismic waves.
(C) two-fold increase in the
amplitude of seismic waves.
(D) two-fold increase in the
energy of seismic waves.
Answer: (A)
37. Which of the following is not
a measure of Human Development Index?
(A) Literacy Rate
(B) Gross Enrolment
(C) Sex Ratio
(D) Life Expectancy
Answer: (C)
38. India has the highest number
of students in colleges after
(A) the U.K. (B) the U.S.A.
(C) Australia (D) Canada
Answer: (B)
39. Which of the following
statement(s) is/are not correct about the Attorney General of India?
1. The President appoints a
person, who is qualified to be a Judge of a High Court, to be the Attorney
General of India.
2. He has the right of audience
in all the Courts of the country.
3. He has the right to take part
in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
4. He has a fixed tenure.
Select the correct answer from
the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 3 and 4 (D) 3 only
Answer: (A)
40. Which of the following prefix
President Pranab Mukherjee desires to be discontinued while interacting with
Indian dignitaries as well as in official notings ?
1. His Excellency 2. Mahamahim
3. Hon’ble 4. Shri/Smt.
Select the correct answer from
the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 3 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 2 (D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (C)
41. Which of the following can be
done under conditions of financial emergency?
1. State Legislative Assemblies
can be abolished.
2. Central Government can acquire
control over the budget and expenditure of States.
3. Salaries of the Judges of the
High Courts and the Supreme Court can be reduced.
4. Right to Constitutional
Remedies can be suspended.
Select the correct answer from
the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1 and 2 (D) 2 and 3
Answer: (D)
42. Match List – I with List – II
and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(a) Poverty Reduction Programme
(i) Mid-day Meals
(b) Human Development Scheme (ii)
Indira Awas Yojana (IAY)
(c) Social Assistance Scheme
(iii) National Old Age Pension (NOAP)
(d) Minimum Need Scheme (iv)
MNREGA
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Answer: (A)
43. For an efficient and durable
learning, learner should have
(A) ability to learn only
(B) requisite level of motivation
only
(C) opportunities to learn only
(D) desired level of ability and
motivation
Answer: (D)
44. Classroom communication must
be
(A) Teacher centric
(B) Student centric
(C) General centric
(D) Textbook centric
Answer: (B)
45. The best method of teaching
is to
(A) impart information
(B) ask students to read books
(C) suggest good reference
material
(D) initiate a discussion and
participate in it
Answer: (D)
46. Interaction inside the
classroom should generate
(A) Argument
(B) Information
(C) Ideas
(D) Controversy
Answer: (C)
47. “Spare the rod and spoil the
child”, gives the message that
(A) punishment in the class
should be banned.
(B) corporal punishment is not
acceptable.
(C) undesirable behaviour must be
punished.
(D) children should be beaten
with rods.
Answer: (C)
48. The type of communication
that the teacher has in the classroom, is termed as
(A) Interpersonal
(B) Mass communication
(C) Group communication
(D) Face-to-face communication
Answer: (C)
49. Which one of the following is
an indication of the quality of a research journal?
(A) Impact factor
(B) h-index
(C) g-index
(D) i10-index
Answer: (A)
50. Good ‘research ethics’ means
(A) Not disclosing the holdings
of shares/stocks in a company that sponsors your research.
(B) Assigning a particular
research problem to one Ph.D./research student only.
(C) Discussing with your
colleagues confidential data from a research paper that you are reviewing for
an academic journal.
(D) Submitting the same research
manuscript for publishing in more than one journal.
Answer: (B)
51. Which of the following
sampling methods is based on probability?
(A) Convenience sampling
(B) Quota sampling
(C) Judgement sampling
(D) Stratified sampling
Answer: (D)
52. Which one of the following
references is written according to American Psychological Association (APA)
format?
(A) Sharma, V. (2010).
Fundamentals of Computer Science. New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill
(B) Sharma, V. 2010. Fundamentals
of Computer Science. New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill
(C) Sharma.V. 2010. Fundamentals
of Computer Science, New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill
(D) Sharma, V. (2010),
Fundamentals of Computer Science, New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill
Answer: (A)
53. Arrange the following steps
of research in correct sequence :
1. Identification of research
problem
2. Listing of research objectives
3. Collection of data
4. Methodology
5. Data analysis
6. Results and discussion
(A) 1 – 2 – 3 – 4 – 5 – 6
(B) 1 – 2 – 4 – 3 – 5 – 6
(C) 2 – 1 – 3 – 4 – 5 – 6
(D) 2 – 1 – 4 – 3 – 5 – 6
Answer: (B)
54. Identify the incorrect
statement:
(A) A hypothesis is made on the
basis of limited evidence as a starting point for further investigations.
(B) A hypothesis is a basis for
reasoning without any assumption of its truth.
(C) Hypothesis is a proposed
explanation for a phenomenon.
(D) Scientific hypothesis is a
scientific theory.
Answer: (D)
Read the following passage
carefully and answer the questions (55 to 60):
The popular view of towns and
cities in developing countries and of urbanization process is that despite the
benefits and comforts it brings, the emergence of such cities connotes environmental
degradation, generation of slums and squatters, urban poverty, unemployment,
crimes, lawlessness, traffic chaos etc. But what is the reality? Given the
unprecedental increase in urban population over the last 50 years from 300
million in 1950 to 2 billion in 2000 in developing countries, the wonder really
is how well the world has coped, and not how badly.
In
general, the urban quality of life has improved in terms of availability of
water and sanitation, power, health and education, communication and transport.
By way of illustration, a large number of urban residents have been provided
with improved water in urban areas in Asia’s largest countries such as China,
India, Indonesia and Philippines. Despite that, the access to improved water in
terms of percentage of total urban population seems to have declined during the
last decade of 20th century, though in absolute numbers, millions of additional
urbanites, have been provided improved services. These countries have made
significant progress in the provision of sanitation services too, together,
providing for an additional population of more than 293 million citizens within
a decade (1990-2000). These improvements must be viewed against the backdrop of
rapidly increasing urban population, fiscal crunch and strained human resources
and efficient and quality-oriented public management.
55. The popular view about the
process of urbanization in developing countries is
(A) Positive (B) Negative
(C) Neutral (D) Unspecified
Answer: (B)
56. The average annual increase
in the number of urbanites in developing countries, from 1950 to 2000 A.D. was
close to
(A) 30 million (B) 40 million
(C) 50 million (D) 60 million
Answer: (A)
57. The reality of urbanization
is reflected in
(A) How well the situation has
been managed.
(B) How badly the situation has
gone out of control.
(C) How fast has been the tempo
of urbanization.
(D) How fast the environment has
degraded.
Answer: (A)
58. Which one of the following is
not considered as an indicator of urban quality of life?
(A) Tempo of urbanization (B)
Provision of basic services
(C) Access to social amenities
(D) All the above
Answer: (A)
59. The author in this passage
has tried to focus on
(A) Extension of Knowledge
(B) Generation of Environmental
Consciousness
(C) Analytical Reasoning
(D) Descriptive Statement
Answer: (C)
60. In the above passage, the
author intends to state
(A) The hazards of the urban life
(B) The sufferings of the urban life
(C) The awareness of human
progress (D) the limits to growth
Answer: (D)
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